Questions

Over-the-top maneuvers will lose approximately how many feet per maneuver?
Prior to VMC Drag, lead will slow to ____ KCAS and coordinate with ATC for non-standard formation during the remainder of the approach.
If the EGI system is OFF or in Attitude (ATT) mode, what function is disabled?
Combat ceiling is the maximum pressure altitude at which the aircraft can continue to climb at which climb rate per minute?
Lead should limit bank angle to _____ degrees with wingmen in route.
For the low speed stability exercise, set the power no lower than ____ % RPM.
The service ceiling is the maximum pressure altitude at which the aircraft can continue to climb in MAX or MIL thrust at a minimum rate of how many feet per minute?
A directive then descriptive traffic call from the wingman should follow which format?
Rolling takeoffs increase takeoff roll approximately:
Can you taxi the T-38 with a single engine?
How many flight plans may be loaded onto the DTC, including scratch pad?
After the before-takeoff checks are completed and prior to takeoff, are flight members required to inspect accompanying aircraft for proper configuration and abnormalities?
Using the A/A TACAN, what DME corresponds to 4,000 feet?
What is the normal rate of descent (VVI) once established on final?
With gear down and full flaps below 220 KCAS, what is the approximate pounds per minute fuel burn?
Which power setting yields the higher static thrust per wing?
BD checks are always required after every mission regardless of circumstances.
A manual override (MOR) handle is provided to initiate seat/pilot separation in what circumstances?
Where should distress or ELT transmissions be reported?
Abrupt forward or aft deflection or pulsing stick in the Mach range of 0.8 to 0.95 may result in overshoot of the limit load factor.
What is the typical range for normal GPS position acquisition time?
Begin closed pull-up with a minimum of ____ kts and maintain a minimum of ____ kts.
MSA is computed by adding 1,000 ft to the highest obstruction within 5 NM of the route centerline. True or False?
Which throttle action should be avoided after ice ingestion to safely recover?
During single-engine, low fuel ops, and less than 250 lb in either sys, put both boost pumps to ____ and the xfeed switch to ____ to allow the engine to be fed by both sys.
Minimum wingtip spacing on runway lineup is ____ feet if both crews are dual or _____ feet if either crew is solo.
The mode select switch on the UHF backup control panel toggles between which options?
What tone is heard with an over-G condition?
What is the interval takeoff spacing for an element takeoff?
GEAR caution voice message thresholds are what values?
For chase aircraft during an emergency, what is the minimum altitude AGL (AGL)?
For a given divert range, the DVT profile can command a climb from sea level to as high as which flight level?
How is normal landing distance calculated?
Do not operate the seat adjust switch for more than how many minute(s) in any 8-minute period?
AB range thrust augmentation is approximately which range?
Which warning is third in priority on the WCA?
The YSAS may disengage, an ADC PFL generated, TAS not be available, and all AoA lights may illuminate if the pitot heat is turned on during ground ops for more than how many seconds?
If HUD fuel reading differs from EED, how many pounds difference is allowed before EED is considered correct?
During an inflight alignment - when GPS data is not available.
Which g limits should be consulted to evaluate potential over-G when encountering wake turbulence?
What functions does the main fuel control perform?
The EED FF indicator(s) on an inoperative/shutdown engine may read as high as ___ PPH
How long does it take the MDP to power up with a full system cold boot?
What is the perch starting altitude condition?
The standby airspeed indicator displays airspeed from ____ to ____ KIAS.
Which altitude scenario matches the cabin pressure schedule: 30,000 feet?
To verify erroneous engine sensor data on the Master EED, what action should be performed in the other cockpit?
Which of the following is a valid starting parameter for a perch setup?
Which warning is fourth in priority on the WCA?
When intruder vertical velocity is greater than ___ fpm, a white arrow is displayed to the R of the traffic symbol.
Formation takeoffs are not allowed if runway width is less than how many feet?
What is the Flight Lead responsible for?
During a trail departure, what speed is reached in AB power before accelerating to MIL?
A minimum of ___ to ___% rpm is required to achieve any engine FF for restart.
The GPS receiver keeps a fifth satellite on standby to do what?
The WSSP configuration option is located under which MFD menu?
For interval takeoff, minimum spacing is ____ seconds for single aircraft and _____ seconds for an element takeoff.
What does each ADD line on the oil dipstick represent?
Which compound can be sprayed on the canopy to cause the glass to become brittle?
Which label is displayed in the EED message window during an overtemperature condition?
What is the maximum recommended fuel difference between the two systems to keep Waite CG within limits?
What is the maximum RPM percentage display on the EED tachometer?
When icing conditions are unavoidable, PITOT HEAT should be activated and which other cockpit system should be turned to full increase?
If a flap-slab interconnect failure occurs and the pilot selects a flap setting between 30% and 45%, the controls provide what kind of authority?
How many seconds can a throttle remain out of OFF after a fire warning before risking fire damage to exposure of flexible hydraulic lines?
USAF aircraft cockpits and UAS control stations must always be capable of providing what information?
Turn on anti-collision or strobe lights prior to engine start and do not turn them off until after engine shutdown unless ______
Begin closed pull-up with min of ___ kts and maintain min of ___ kts
If deviating from a clearance, when must the pilot notify ATC?
Crossfeeding is recommended when fuel differences exceed how many pounds?
In Close Trail, what defines two ship lengths spacing?
Which fuel value is cited for Joker and Bingo in the standard?
The CDI can extend beyond the second dot to what percentage of full-scale localizer deflection?
What is the minimum altitude above ground for the 7.5-degree NH attitude during takeoff?
Formation takeoffs are restricted to elements of how many aircraft?
What is Green speed in this context?
Variation in landing technique could increase landing distance as much as _____% from that computed from the landing distance chart.
Nosewheel liftoff occurs at approximately which KCAS, and the aircraft should fly off the runway at approximately which KCAS?
Which speed is used at the check distance to decide whether to continue the takeoff?
In the single-engine go-around scenario, the inoperative engine should be advanced to MIL prior to coming out of afterburner on the other engine. What does MIL stand for in this context?
Oxygen pressure indication greater than ____ psi may indicate that the explosion of the LOX Converter may be imminent
When the landing gear has been extended by the alternate release handle, which is unavailable for taxiing?
To approximate an arc lead turn, what percent of GS should be used at airspeeds below 300 KCAS?
During Emergency Divert, alt of the optimal profile will be displayed only if it results in a fuel improvement of at least how many pounds?
The IVV represents which flight parameter on the HUD/MFD?
Ground speed threshold for GT symbols to display is over how many knots?
Moderate buffet is defined as AoA from 0.70 through DIBI, accompanied by which indicators?
The OXYGEN low-level caution light may blink (due to sloshing) if the system contains less than how many liters?
What is the purpose of a fifth GPS satellite kept on standby?
Roughly what percent RPM will hold you between 240-260 KCAS?
The canopy jettison system only works properly with both canopies in what position?
A VMC Drag will achieve a minimum of how many feet of runway separation between aircraft in formation?
In the tactical formation, what is the vertical stack tolerance?
In back course operation, which data are removed and not available?
Changes of greater than +/- 100 pounds are indicative of ___________.
What is the specified nose wheel tire pressure?
Under what two conditions would the oil pressure latch?
When aircraft speed is below ___ KCAS, the a/s may read from 12-50 kts on HUD and MFD depending on atmospheric conditions.
If flap-slab interconnect failure occurs and landing conditions require using some flaps to reduce touch speed, which flap setting range provides limited, but adequate, nose-down control authority and stick forces?
What does the ACK key do?
What is considered fully flared?
Moderate buffet is described as occurring at about which AoA and continuing through which cues?
During preflight, are cords allowed to be visible on the nose gear tire sidewall?
Which event triggers an ENGINE caution?
Lead should be offered to the distressed aircraft in which of the following situations?
What distance defines fully flared in relation to approach speed?
For an Instrument Trail departure, all aircraft will use what degree of bank?
What is the sea level static thrust per wing at MIL and MAX power?
The default RNP values in enroute, terminal, and non-precision approach phases are, respectively:
To achieve 6,000' spacing, the preceding aircraft should be in which position during the final turn?
On the FCP visual references for stack level, where should the nugget be relative to the slab bolt?
In BLK TCAS mode, the TCAS searches +/- ____ ft of ownship.
What is the Admin Lead responsible for?
Define Minimum Acceleration Check Speed (MACS).
Caution — If oil pressure does not recover within approximately how many seconds, return to normal flight conditions?
As a technique, begin leveling off upon reaching ____% of the Vertical Velocity Indicator (VVI).
If rejoining as wing from a position other than fingertip or route, do not rejoin closer than ____ feet with a radio failure.
If both aircraft are blind, lead will immediately ensure a minimum of _____ ft alt separation
Which AoA range defines the approach to stall?
Which item is listed as a F-16 HUD gr down symbol?
What three criteria must be met to consider the final turn 'made'?
Which two checks are performed during the before takeoff inspection of flight control surfaces?
If the FIRE light goes out, and the WARNING TEST switch does not illuminate the affected FIRE light, what action should be taken?
Moderate buffet occurs at approximately what AoA?
Define chase position.
On which radio channel should you pass the new tail number to RAMROD?
With gear down and full flaps, at low altitudes below 220 KCAS, what is the approximate fuel burn per minute and per nautical mile?
In the low-speed stability exercise, what minimum power setting percentage RPM should not be reduced below?
Instantaneous pitch corrections of the Flight Director are limited to how many degrees up and down?
Placing the fuel shutoff switch to CLOSED shuts off fuel flow to that engine in approximately how many seconds?
What is the maximum possible MACS reduction in knots due to field length exceeding CFL?
The ANP position accuracy is displayed in which unit?
During an overshoot, the wingman should cross lead's low six o'clock with a minimum spacing of approximately how many ship-lengths?
SETOS stands for which phrase?
The FUEL LOW caution light illuminates when either fuel tank registers ____ lbs or less for ____ seconds or more?
During a practice single-engine approach, the simulated inoperative engine must be set to no less than what percent RPM?
The Target Destination Box appears only in NAV or A/G MM when the destination is 500-509.
How do you estimate 30 and 45 degrees of aspect as wing?
In Close Trail, what does two ship lengths refer to in terms of alignment?
BD checks after each mission prior to or during RTB are conducted when circumstances permit.
Normal GPS position acquisition typically takes ___ to ___ minutes, and can take up to ___ minutes if stored data is unavailable.
Which statement best describes the Wingman's responsibilities?
Crosswind procedures go into effect at crosswinds greater than what speed, and what are the general actions?
The vertical velocity will eventually indicate _____ the pattern altitude.
During the before takeoff checks, what are the two separate tasks that must be accomplished?
Which two actions are required when icing conditions are unavoidable?
During navigation checks, which combination is used to evaluate course guidance and distance measuring equipment against the depicted facility?
The front canopy is designed to withstand the impact of a ____ lb bird at airspeeds between ____ and ____ knots.
Which altitude annotation must be present on all maps to ensure obstacle clearance along routes?
During a radio failure as lead, the wingman should be placed in which state?
Oil system levels should be checked within how many minutes of engine shutdown?
DIBI occurs at AoA greater than what value?
Which AoA configuration indicates very low AoA?
The speed brake has minimal effect below what speed?
During icing recovery, which action is recommended?
The MFD IVV arc operates at a rate of ____ fpm to ____ fpm.
Wingman should time their break turn for ____ seconds after lead to ensure 3000' spacing and ____ seconds to ensure 6000' spacing.
To obtain approximate glide distance (both engines windmilling) in NM for clean aircraft, multiply altitude in thousands of feet by which factor? For WSSP-installed aircraft, multiply by which factor?
With a landing gear retraction failure, once safe indications have been achieved, do not _____ unless a greater emergency exists.
In nav and A/A master modes, the break X alt is set to ____ ft. When a break X appears in the HUD, the aircrew should initiate a wings level ____ G pull-up within __ seconds to ensure a/c recovery above 90' AGL
Accelerate to 300 KCAS in MIL power using approximately what pitch in NH until passing 10,000' MSL?
What are the day weather criteria for a VFR join-up underneath a ceiling?
Termination timing is normally chosen to be advantageous for MOA boundaries and profile management.
Which condition would trigger Attitude (ATT) mode during taxiing?
When landing with the gear up, touch down approximately how many knots above normal touchdown speed?
Which condition is considered asymmetric?
The core of the T-38 avionics system is which component?
The digital readout for Oil Pressure is from ____ to _____ psi in _____ psi increments.
What does the FULL line on the oil dipstick indicate in pints?
Transmission on the Lower UHF antenna may interfere with the ILS and cause the pitch steering bar to blank.
Placing the WARNING BRIGHT/DIM switch to DIM places all caution/warning lights to DIM except ____.
Lead should limit bank angle to _____ degrees with wingmen in route.
What is the required spacing between aircraft on final?
The MDP default Bingo on power up is ____?
During an abort at speeds over 100 knots, what is the recommended use of aerodynamic braking?
If the landing gear has been extended by use of the landing gear alternate release handle, which taxiing capability is unavailable?
Which fuel component is not included in the DST FUEL indication at the start of a divert?
Approximately what power setting will hold you between 250-265 KCAS?
Define Critical Engine Failure Speed (CEFS).
For the FCP visual references to stack level, the lead pilot's helmet should be placed relative to the horizon, the nugget relative to the slab bolt, and the lead's main landing gear should resemble which configuration?
During flight operations, the wingman must inform the lead of reaching which items and receive what acknowledgment?
What are the 3 possible EGI navigation solutions?
With a loss of canopy, minimum drag occurs at ____ KCAS.
Which statement best defines 'Land as Soon as Practical'?
Which three criteria must be met to consider the final turn made?
If past check-in time, _________________ when ready for engine start. (25FTS Standards 4.d)
What is the standard separation between elements in LAB tactical container positioning?
Smoothly reduce power out of MAX between which KCAS range and terminate afterburner by which KCAS?
Under what condition may emergency frequency monitoring not be required?
What is the primary responsibility of the Flight Lead?
During a turning rejoin, wingman should establish and maintain a vertical separation from lead's POM of approximately how many feet until established in route?
Prior to taxi, which information is essential to assess airfield operations status?
If DOWNLOAD ERROR is displayed on the LOAD TO DTD display pg after landing, an aircrew initiated download should be attempted by pressing ____.
What is the visual signal to direct the flight to UHF 15?
Which AoA value corresponds to maximum endurance?
Corrective action for a flap-slab interconnect failure must be taken within how many seconds to ensure recovery without a loss of altitude?
Normally which EED operates as the master and which is slave?
Which statement correctly describes the relationship between the preceding T-38's position and the follower's spacing for 3,000' versus 6,000' spacing?
Flight duty period (FDP) begins and ends at which events?
The EGI will auto-switch Flyby (FBY) and initial approach fix (IAF) steerpoints when range to the steerpoint is less than ____ NM and is less than ____% of the lead point distance.
Which items are included in the weather/status/AHAS/NOTAMS package for the brief?
During anti-icing operation, maintain at least what percent RPM?
Pressing the N hot key activates NRST AIRPORT and displays how many of the closest airports?
For any alleged violation, utilize ______ _______ for any contact with ATC. Do not release the _________ __ __________ to non-USAF agencies without the permission of the AFREP.
Is the increase in fuel flow due to afterburner displayed on the EED?
The speed brake has minimal effect below _____ knots
Which items are students responsible for preparing for the brief?
The landing rate of descent should not exceed how many fpm with less than 1700 pounds of fuel?
Fuel required for closed pattern is approx ___ lbs.
Prior to beginning the final turn, ensure the _____ is down and locked, and the flaps have travelled a sufficient amount to ensure no asymmetry exists, appx ____%
What is the wingspan of the T-38?
The EGI FOM value is described on a 1-9 scale. Which option best represents the associated position error range?
What should you do first if you observe a wing malfunction during formation flight?
After ice ingestion, which throttle action should be avoided?
The vertical velocity will eventually indicate _____ the pattern altitude
Which statement best describes the alignment requirement for the final turn to be considered made?
Is the following statement true or false: Objects will not be placed on top of the glare shield during start with the canopies open?
At approximately what airspeed does nosewheel liftoff occur?
During an interval takeoff, if you are below 100 knots and your flight lead aborts in front of you, consider aborting because you do not have sufficient spacing to takeoff behind lead.
Which item is listed as part of the Wingman's duties?
From the threshold, how far is the normal power reduction to idle?
Under single-engine conditions, if the gear does not retract, raise the flaps at which KCAS?
If one flap motor fails, what is the expected effect on flap travel time?
Configure the aircraft approximately how many miles prior to the Final Approach Fix (FAF)?
An actual stall may be indicated by which three things?
Minimum Roll Landing: Which of the following describes the correct sequence?
Under what two conditions would the oil px latch?
Which mode allows transmit on the displayed frequency, receive on the displayed frequency, and includes the Guard?
Automatic transfer of electrical load when a generator fails occurs through the interaction of which components?
DIBI is defined as AoA greater than which value, with amplitude increasing and rate decreasing?
The G hot key?
What is RAM DUMP used for in the context of an air conditioning system?
During negative-G or inverted flight, what condition may occur until positive-G loads are applied?
Rolling takeoffs increase takeoff roll approximately:
The first how many inches of stick travel provide 1/2 aileron deflection?
As a technique, begin leveling off upon reaching what percent of the Vertical Velocity Indicator (VVI)?
Which statement correctly contrasts Level Final Turn stall with Diving Final Turn?
When a glideslope signal is detected, UHF communications are switched to which antenna and the glideslope is received through which antenna?
SPs will call out Joker and Bingo fuels within _______. (25FTS Standards 3.g)
Which sensors on the EED require AC power?
With gear down and full flaps, how much fuel per nautical mile is burned?
Which statement is true regarding the standby altimeters on the FCP and RCP?
In a four-ship formation, what is the priority for wingmen in maintaining visual and maneuvering?
Placing either fuel shutoff switch to CLOSED shuts off fuel flow to that engine in approx. ____ second(s).
To maximize aerodynamic deceleration, keep the stick full aft until what KIAS?
For turns greater than ____ and at high speeds, the lead point can be greater than 7 NM and can cause an overshoot on the next leg.
Light buffet occurs at approximately which AoA value?
RA commands take precedence over which of the following, when safe operation is not at risk?
How many seconds does the BAK-15 barrier take to fully raise?
Which statement correctly distinguishes 'Land as Soon as Possible' from a more conservative landing plan?
Which statement best describes SETOS?
Which warning is second in priority on the WCA?
During a go-around when aerial go-around is not possible, what should you do with the nose on touchdown?
Once established on final, what is normal VVI?
During the g-exercise, maintain a minimum of how many feet of lateral separation between all formation members?
For formation low approaches, what is the minimum altitude above ground level (AGL)?
What happens to Divert Mode when the EGI is OFF or in ATT mode?
The emergency oxygen cylinder provides O2 for how many minutes, or until what event?
During ground egress, leg garters may be released by which methods?
Negative-G flight (any attitude) is restricted to how many seconds?
Range (RNG) profile calculations for RANGE assume the aircraft stays at the current altitude and include how many pounds for an approach?
In ACP backup mode in either cockpit, which audio indications are lost?
What is the color/state of the fuel quantity imbalance indicator for a 70 lb difference?
If flight through moderate precipitation is unavoidable, what should you do?
In the G-ex exercise, which instrument is used to set the target flight path to achieve specified G levels?
A KIO applies in any phase of flight and all types of missions.
How long does momentarily pushing the start button arm the ignition circuit?
The aircraft heading is always which reference?
The digital readout of the engine tachometer (RPM) is from what percent to what percent RPM in what increments?
If ambient temperature is below 32 F, how many minutes may the EED take to turn on?
Alternate gear extension comm-out is signaled by the RCP pilot in what way?
Pilot use of handheld photo or video recording devices is prohibited when?
Pilots will not take off if the computed takeoff roll exceeds what percent of the available runway for formation takeoffs?
What visual indication differentiates a WARNING from a CAUTION on the HUD/MFD?
An actual stall may be preceded by which two aerodynamic indications?
Which of the following capabilities must USAF cockpits and UAS control stations always have to handle unusual attitudes?
Abrupt control inputs after an aircraft stall may aggravate the condition, resulting in what?
In a formation approach, the wing will fly fingertip until which condition?
After an alternate gear extension, which system is unavailable until the system is re-activated?
What are the immediate actions of the stall/sink recovery?
A check turn is normally no more than ____ degrees of turn.
Normal thrust is the thrust obtained at which combination of RPM and EGT, whichever occurs first?
Which component provides protection from engine over-temps, stalls, and flameouts?
Before engine shutdown, operate the engines at what RPM or below for how many minutes?
With a NORDO aircraft on the wing, when will the lead be offered recovery?
During the MAX-to-MIL transition, what is the speed range for reducing MAX power?
Which option is NOT a priority for the G exercise?
Keep hands clear anytime someone is ______________.
Loading the WSSP on the MFD under CONFIGURATION affects which of the following on the display?
Momentary drop or loss of engine oil pressure is possible during which flight conditions?
If distress or ELT transmissions are detected, what is the correct action?
Declutter mode 0 displays which intruders?
The normal fingertip position is flown using what visual references for stack, line, and spacing?
If an EGT exceeds greater than 650 but no more than which value C without an EGT OVERTEMP CAUTION, the mission may be continued?
What functions does the main fuel control perform?
During ground operations, OAT is inaccurate when which condition is present?
In a divert profile, approximately how many pounds are required to accelerate to climb speed?
For mountainous terrain, the RAA increments to what value?
The 'INCREASE DESCENT' command is inhibited below _____ ft AGL.
What is SETOS defined as?
Which condition contributes to oil consumption and overboard venting that should be limited to 6 oz/hr?
In the BRA format example, which component conveys the direction to traffic?
What is the gross weight of the T-38?
The DTC scratch pad flight plan is designated as which plan?
In Extended Trail, what is the Defender's EGT setting?
Applying crosswind procedures increases landing distance by approximately what percent?
How far down the runway is the normal shift distance?
There is no backup control for the VHF COMM radio. If the MDP fails, the VHF radio remains on which condition?
The digital readout for Oil Pressure is from which range to which range, in what increments?
A full aft stick stall occurs at approximately which KCAS, AoA, and VVI?
Which is a Wingman expectation regarding formation position?
The SPI pulse duration produced by the IDT button lasts for how many seconds?
During descent and landing approaches, keep airspeed at least how many KCAS above minimum controllable speed?
G hot key effect is to temporarily disable the UHF guard channel for 1 minute.
The digital readout for EGT ranges from 0 to 1200 C in increments of what?
For a Go-Around from a No-Flap Final Turn, what steps can be taken to minimize the effects of an overshoot?
Who is primarily in charge of deconfliction within the flight?
Lead point calculations are based on bank angles of ___ deg for bank angles equal to or greater than 30 deg.
In crosswind landings, where should you touchdown with respect to the runway?
During a midair collision, which action should not be taken by formation members?
Cruise ceiling is the maximum pressure altitude at which the aircraft is able to continue to climb at what rate?
What is the normal landing zone?
In four-ship rejoins, wingmen will rejoin in sequence and fly no closer than how many feet to the preceding aircraft until the preceding aircraft are stable in a route or closed formation position?
If you ever have to activate the emergency oxygen system, what additional step should be taken?
Which device is the Standby Vertical Velocity Indicator?
The EGI requires at least ____ seconds to properly shut down after turning the EGI power switch OFF to store necessary data used for initial alignment and the BIT results from the current power cycle.
Operating the engine between what % RPM will significantly reduce the time required to warm the oil?
How is MACS calculated?
Under low fuel conditions, how should fuel balance be managed?
During a simulated single-engine approach, the minimum RPM for the simulated inoperative engine is what percent?
ACK key removes all HUD/MFD warn/caut/advisory (WCA) displays and silences tones except for which warning?
The normal landing zone is defined as how many feet down the runway?
The Radar Altimeter is not displayed at altitudes greater than ____ ft or greater than ____ degrees of bank.
What is the second step in the initial actions for an air conditioner turbine failure?
What is the upper bound of the heart of the airstart envelope RPM?
Within how many NM from the airfield does the EGI transition to terminal phase-of-flight?
AoA must be less than what value for the final-turn criteria?
When the computed landing roll exceeds what percentage of the available runway, land at an alternate runway?
A preceding T-38 should be ____ of the way through the final turn to ensure 3,000' spacing or _____ to ensure 6,000' spacing.
Backup mode for the VOR/ILS, TACAN, and UHF radios is entered automatically when what occurs?
The EGI will auto-switch Overfly (OVR) and Airport (APT) steerpoints when the aircraft passes within ___ NM of the waypoint and the EGI bearing pointer swings through the 3 o'clock or 9 o'clock positions relative to the nose of the aircraft.
During airborne emergencies, what should you maintain as much as possible in formation?
During a NordO recovery, what three conditions indicate the lead can be offered to recover?
By how many knots is the FLAPS caution limit below the actual flap limit?
In Main mode on the UHF backup control panel, how do transmit and receive occur?
In CFL guidance, CFL must be no greater than which of the following?
Which condition requires manual data transfer rather than automatic?
Which of the following statements accurately describes when the FLIGHT/UTILITY HYDRAULIC light illuminates?
Which system handles simulated weapon delivery and bomb scoring?
For a standard instrument ride (1.2 hours), no greater than how many pints have been depleted?
You may combine the climb check with the level-off check when cruise altitude is at or below _____.
In a 3- or 4-ship BD Check, lead will direct which aircraft to check the flight?
Under crosswind conditions, crosswind procedures go into effect when crosswinds are greater than how many knots?
The IDT button activates a Special identification (SPI) pulse for ____ seconds.
Can you taxi the T-38 single-engine? Can you exit the runway single-engine if you have downside hydraulics or the landing gear is pinned (barring no greater emergency)?
An actual stall may be indicated by what three things?
Which statement best describes the icing restrictions for the T-38?
The 'DOWNLOAD ERROR' message is displayed on which display page after landing, prompting an aircrew initiated download by pressing LAST (MR-3)?
Which AoA range is the optimum final turn?
From an overhead, when practicing a single-engine pattern, you should use both engines until what point?
At the FENCE OUT call, the tactical airspeed contract is reset to what value?
G-awareness exercise is planned whenever aircrews plan or are likely to maneuver above how many Gs?
Which RPM range significantly reduces oil warm-up time?
After completing the simulated single-engine go-around, advance the simulated inoperative engine to what power setting before coming out of afterburner on the other engine?
Aircrews should taxi at a moderate speed, normally not greater than ____ knots groundspeed
When the EED is powered on or off, which caution light momentarily activates?
During the landing attitude stall, the technique is to maintain level flight to approximately how many fpm VVI?
Define the Wedge position.
Minimum controllable airspeed is reached when you have to deflect the stick more than what fraction of stick travel to maintain level, unaccelerated flight?
Which HUD element is displayed at the top of the HUD as the heading and scale indicator?
What is the valid bingo numerical entry range?
Under crosswind procedures, by approximately what percentage does the landing distance increase?
Which statement defines rotation speed?
With the canopy closed, cockpit damage may result when ambient temperature is in excess of how many degrees Fahrenheit?
Route Abort Altitude (RAA) is computed by adding 1,000' (2,000' in mountainous terrain) to the elevation of the highest obstruction to flight with how many NM on either side of the planned route?
What is the perch range (distance between the wingman and the lead) for perch setup?
In the BRA format example, what is the altitude specified?
Which power source powers the Multifunctional Display (MFD)?
During a practice single-engine approach, the simulated inoperative engine RPM must be no less than what percent?
Pilots must annotate time and distance tick-marks on low-level maps to maintain positive positional awareness of obstacles within how many nautical miles on either side of the planned route?
In the Tactical Formation, which spacing range is described for the 4,000-6,000 feet distance?
What is the normal spacing for a no-flap pattern?
Throttle bursts are defined as what?
Extension of the main and nose gear require approximately how many seconds, but can take up to how many seconds?
Under ILS/LOC/BC CDI scaling, what does 1 dot represent?
If the engine cannot be shut down with the throttle or if there is any indication fuel is still flowing to the engine after placing the throttle to OFF, _________.
Describe a latched EGT.
Boost pump fuel flow is guaranteed to which altitude in MSL?
Lead and wing will return to the NAV master mode after the terminate drill no later than completion of which check?
During a VMC Drag, lead will maintain 250 KCAS until _____ miles from the runway.
What is the middle value in the T-38 ground speed checks at the 3/2/1 boards?
If an RA vertical maneuvering command (danger zone) is seen on the MFD/HUD, the pilot should _____.
Before engine start with battery power, which EED indicators are OFF?
Idle RPM should be within limits after engine warms and oil pressure decreases to normal range. Which parameter is the reference?
Define the Extended Trail cone.
The landing gear warning system is activated when the landing gear is not down and locked and which three conditions exist?
Define the Fighting Wing position.
Over-the-top maneuvers will typically result in an altitude loss of approximately how many feet per maneuver?
When appropriate, brief an alternate mission for each flight. The alternate mission will be which of the following?
What is the maximum time to operate the seat adjust switch during any 8-minute period?
If encountering wake turbulence or jet wash, use which g limits to evaluate potential over G?
If oil pressure does not recover within approximately 10 seconds, what should be done?
Which statement accurately describes the RA response requirement in relation to safety?
Pilots must respond to all radar advisories as directed by TCAS, unless doing so would jeopardize safe operations.
Normally, the rollout point is approximately_____ to _____ feet AGL at _____ to _____ NM from the threshold.
During a crosswind landing, which combination of flight controls is recommended to maintain centerline?
What are the two indications of an air compressor turbine fail?
At ambient temp below 32 F, the MFD may take up to ___ min to turn on.
During a trail departure, the speed reached in MIL is centered on which value?
Ops Checks initiated between the Fence In and Fence Out will include _____ and _____?
Any time the aircraft departs a hard surface (taxiway or runway), what action should be taken?
Do not delay ejection by attempting airstarts at low altitude if below the optimum airstart airspeed and below ______ feet AGL.
Operating the engine between which percent RPM will significantly reduce the time required to warm the oil?
Which symbol on the F-16 HUD is the commanded speed indicator, also known as the 'bug'?
Under the specified conditions, what is the total fuel flow per engine at rest?
Which item is included in the briefing preparation list?
The Tactical Lead is responsible for which areas?
All three- and four-ship tactical rejoins will be called on the radio and acknowledged.
Once centered, the commanded roll rate of the Flight Director is ____ deg per second.
Abrupt forward or aft stick deflection or pulsing stick in the Mach range of which values may result in overshoot of the limit load factor?
Describe the signal to direct the flight to VHF 15.
If 'INCREASE DESCENT, INCREASE DESCENT' is heard, descend bw ____ and ____ fpm
Which effect may occur if pitot heat is left on during ground ops for more than 30 seconds?
At intercept angles equal to or greater than 30 deg, maximum bank of ____ deg is commanded by the flight director.
What conditions must be reported immediately to the appropriate controlling agency?
Normally, aircrew will use supplemental oxygen anytime the cabin altitude exceeds ______ ft MSL.
Where is the Msg window located on the HUD?
Due to MDP and EED software differences, the fuel quantity displayed in the HUD may be different than the EED, but shouldn't exceed ____lbs. If they do, the ____ is correct
Tire pressures: main wheel and nose wheel?
The fuel quantity imbalance indicator follows what schedule?
Which statement best expresses the difference between 'Land as Soon as Possible' and 'Land as Soon as Practical'?
Do not initiate a lead change when the wingman is further aft than _____ or greater than ____ deg aft from line abreast position
During an overshoot, fly no higher than ________ on the outside of the turn.
Maximum Glide (Both Engine Windmilling) assumes a glide speed of which KCAS?
What is the maximum downward pitch correction of the Flight Director?
The nozzle position readout increments are in what percent steps?
If a manually-entered Required Navigation Performance (RNP) value is more restrictive than the current RNP, the letter that will precede the value on the MFD is which?
Which speed should be used to terminate afterburner when reducing MAX power?
What is the minimum distance required for three- and four-ship rejoins from the preceding aircraft until it is stabilized in route?
An actual stall may be preceded by which two aerodynamic indications?
Which instrument may be unavailable when pitot heat remains on for more than 30 seconds?
Which statement about EED brightness during Day Mode overtemperature is correct?
Is the T-38 baro-altimeter temp compensated?
During icing conditions, which cockpit system should be turned to full increase along with PITOT HEAT?
Describe the 2 flt director symbols on the HUD
Under Admin Lead actions, if positions change, what happens to aircraft numbers?
What is the max flight size in IMC?
Aircrew should avoid flight within how many hours after exposure to altitude chamber above 25,000 ft?
Which state should the standby attitude indicator be in for solo flight?
In the BRA traffic call example, what was the specified range?
At engine speeds of 94-98% with anti-ice on, the normal increase in EGT is approximately how many degrees Celsius?
Automatic engine recording is initiated by the DTC with Weight On Wheels and RPM greater than ___%
Which term is used to denote the speed above which the aircraft cannot maintain a 200 ft/NM climb gradient on a single engine with gear up?
Declare 'minimum fuel' or 'emergency fuel' to the appropriate controlling agency when the aircraft ______.
Upon completing the simulated single-engine go-around, to what power should the inoperative engine be advanced prior to coming out of afterburner on the other engine?
For the G-ex, the flight path marker should be set to approximately which NL values to hold 4-4.5G and 5-5.5G, respectively?
Which statement is a Wingman's duty?
The nozzle position readout increments are from 0 to 99 in what increments?
For wingmen to rejoin in four-ship formation, what condition must the preceding aircraft be in?
Which person informs the lead of reaching Joker and Bingo and receives acknowledgement from Flight Lead?
Video recording will automatically stop ____ seconds after landing
An over-G condition is detected after exceeding the max G limit for more than how many seconds?
The flight lead becomes primarily responsible for deconfliction when:
Which action may cause up to +/- 100 pounds change in displayed fuel quantity?
What are the T-38 Groundspeed checks displayed on the 3/2/1 boards?
A gearbox failure is indicated by which of the following indicators?
The charts for floor transitions, floor slave, and Cuban 8 transitions are associated with which type of maneuvers?
Zero-G flight is restricted to how many seconds?
Heavy Buffet occurs at AoA higher than DIBI up to what?
What fuel calculation is not accounted for in the DST FUEL indication at the start of the divert?
The FUEL LOW caution light illuminates when either fuel tank registers ____ pounds or less for ____ seconds or more.
Which description matches a latched EGT?
If T2 cutback is observed (RPM or EGT lower than regular limits), airspeed should be increased by exchanging altitude for airspeed until EGT/RPM return to normal prior to which action?
Flight through moderate precipitation may damage the nose cone or vertical stab; if unavoidable, what speed should you slow to?
To release crewmember names to non-USAF agencies, which approval is required?
A Resolution Advisory (RA) with another TCAS II equipped aircraft will be _____.
Define takeoff speed.
In Extended Trail, what power settings are used by Offender and Defender?
In a Left Essential DC Failure, which radio communications and NAVAID will be inoperable?
Which of the following would require immediate stall recovery?
Define the chase cone
What is the normal spacing for a no-flap pattern?
Which of the following is true about the three EGI navigation solutions?
The boresight cross angle used for initial backstick input is approximately
Who has priority for barrier engagement in a formation takeoff?
How is takeoff distance defined?
How many seconds does a cold boot take for an MDP reboot?
Which action retracts the landing-taxi light?
If possible, avoid opening the canopy when relative wind component exceeds how many knots?
Automatic waypoint switching will not occur if the steerpoint is a ___ or ___.
In BOTH mode on the UHF backup control panel, what is the transmit/receive behavior and which frequency is included?
After ice ingestion, which steps should be taken to safely recover the aircraft?
If solo and landing with a fuel imbalance where the right aft fuel system is more than twice the left fwd fuel system, causing an AFT CG condition, what action should be taken before egress?
Which statement about MDP backup mode is true?
The timing to begin a delayed 90-degree turn occurs just prior to which event?
Aircrew will not fly under which circumstance?
What is the greatest CDI deflection with any PNS?
Abrupt control inputs after an aircraft stall may cause what?
If the DTS cartridge reinsertion does not fix the error, what is the next recommended step?
The PIC may initiate which action without interrupting crew rest?
If idle decay is encountered in flight, which procedure should be followed?
Which statement correctly describes T-38 baro-altimeter temperature compensation?
Define joker/bingo fuel.
How much ice accumulation on the engine inlet duct lips can cause engine damage?
During a formation abort, the aircraft continuing the takeoff will do what?
For both the left and right FF indicators to operate normally, the FF power supply requires which of the following?
The RNG profile calculations assume the aircraft stays at the current altitude.
Aircrew should avoid flight within how many hours after donating plasma, bone marrow, or blood?
Maintain engine RPM at ___% or above when airspeeds of less than 200 KCAS above 20,000 feet are anticipated
Which component is the core of the T-38 avionics system?
The EGI will transition to terminal phase-of-flight within ___ NM of the airfield.
To verify erroneous sensor data on the Master EED, which action should be performed in the other cockpit?
The minimum turn radius of the T-38 is achieved at approximately which speed range?
The Nav Lead is responsible for which functions?
The minimum turn radius of the T-38 is achieved between approximately which knot values?
On wet runways, which touchdown technique helps reduce hydroplaning effects?
Which statement correctly describes the EED power source?
What action should be taken before egress if solo with an aft CG fuel imbalance?
When performing an actual or simulated single-engine landing with 60% flaps, the landing roll will be approximately how many feet longer?
Which statement is true about the DVT profile calculations regarding configuration?
The VHF radio will be referred to as _____?
Which cockpit resource is used by the wing during drag for situational awareness as task management permits?
Which condition describes the distance and speed used to maintain engine RPM at 80% or above?
Which item is NOT normally listed as an indication of an engine fire?
Who is primarily responsible for visual lookout within the flight?
What does the acronym DIBI stand for?
The DC power system can be powered by two ____ amp DC TRUs or one ____ volt battery.
The static inverter converts DC bus power to how many volt AC power?
If the aircraft will not accept external power and the ground power unit checks good, which action may actuate necessary relays to allow external AC power?
What is the stall warning AoA range?
What is the specified main wheel tire pressure?
For simple NORDO, clearance to land is implied when which event occurs?
At low altitude and high airspeed (500 KCAS), EGT droop can occur with engine at MIL when accompanied by what percent or less nozzle indication?
Normally, which aircraft will terminate ET to favor MOA boundaries and profile management, while the other aircraft may terminate for DLO attainment?
During alternate gear extension, the gear extension can take up to how many seconds?
Which statement defines the Critical Field Length (CFL)?
What should you prefix external communications with when in formation?
Which control is listed as a last resort for maintaining directional control during an abort?
If an EED overtemperature occurs, EED brightness is reduced by ____% (Day Mode Only) and 'EED HOT' is displayed in the EED message window.
Radar approach fuel requirement is closest to which value?
How far down the runway is the normal shift distance?
Perform an instrument aileron roll at a minimum of what KCAS and what percent RPM?
In a 3- or 4-ship BD Check, after returning to position, which aircraft is automatically cleared to check number 2?
During Instrument Trail departures, who may reduce the vertical separation to 500 feet to comply with MSA?
Which instrument provides standby vertical speed information?
Preface all communications to external agencies in formation with ______.
The most common rule of the thumb for energy exchange is 1000 feet of altitude is worth about ____ knots of airspeed in MIL power.
Which statement describes the correct sequence to obtain an intermediate speed brake position?
Which statement accurately reflects the monitoring requirement for emergency frequencies?
With the canopy closed, cockpit damage may result when ambient temperature is above what value in degrees Fahrenheit?
If UHF interference is encountered on any frequency, which antenna position should be selected first?
Maintaining a minimum RPM when the engine anti-icing system is turned on is which percentage?
Which HUD flight-director symbol combination indicates bank and pitch commands?
If battery voltage is less than 22 VDC, the EED display powers up at full brightness, regardless of switch position and reverts to selected brightness when the first generator comes online. Which option best describes this behavior?
Smoothly reduce power out of MAX between _____ and _____ KCAS, and terminate afterburner by _____ KCAS.
During a dual engine flameout, which engine should be attempted first because its instruments will operate normally as soon as engine start button is pushed?
Who is primarily in charge of deconfliction within the flight?
With ANTI-ICE enabled, thrust loss is approximately what percent at MIL power and what percent at MAX power?
For Instrument Trail departure, each aircraft will maintain at least how many feet of vertical separation from the preceding aircraft?
What is the maximum fuel imbalance display value in pounds?
At 4,000 feet, which visual reference disappears to aid wing alignment?
What pitch is used to accelerate to 300 KCAS in MIL power?
Which of the following best describes a compressor stall indication at low altitude?
For the G-ex, set the flight path marker to approx. 18-20 NL to hold 5-5.5G's.
In a turn less than 90 degrees, what is the lead point fraction for a 60-degree turn?
Which is an acceptable landing configuration for the T-38?
Takeoff interval between aircraft or elements will be a minimum of ____ seconds.
What is the recommended thunderstorm/turbulence penetration airspeed in KCAS?
A radar approach requires approximately how many pounds of fuel?
What is the typical rollout altitude range in feet AGL for the final approach?
During a go-around from a no-flap final turn, which action helps minimize overshoot?
In the FCP stack level references, how should the lead's main landing gear appear?
During crosswind landings, which side of the runway should you land on?
Can the DVT profile account for diversion with gear/flap extended?
With the landing gear retracted, the aircraft exceeds a 200 ft/NM climb gradient on a single engine at any speed above which term?
What describes the lost wingman procedures for straight and level, outside, and inside of the turn?
Define the tactical formation position.
With DC Failure, the RCP ______ gear light does not illuminate due to gear relay wiring.
During a trail departure, what is the maximum bank angle for turns?
At 6,000 feet, which visual references will you see for the wing?
What is the Tactical Lead responsible for?
If a tire skid is detected, what immediate action should be taken?
Who holds the ultimate responsibility for the flight in a standard flight leadership structure?
For an instrument climb, power settings between ___% and ___% rpm will provide comfortable climb rates at 300 kts for intermediate level-offs.
The fuel quantity indicators should be monitored to ensure the 2 fuel systems are within ___ lbs of each other; Waite CG is within limits.
A Traffic Advisory (TA) is issued by the TCAS when an intruder aircraft is predicted to be within _____ seconds.
T-38 icing restrictions prohibit climbs and descents through icing conditions more severe than which category?
What is the upper end of the climb rate range commanded by 'INCREASE CLIMB, INCREASE CLIMB'?
The digital readout for EGT is from what temperature range and increments?
What is typically used as the go/no-go decision for touch-and-go aborts?
The standby airspeed indicator has a tolerance of +/- ___ knots at 150 KIAS and +/- ___ knots at 400 KIAS.
Formation takeoff is prohibited if the aircraft is being ferried from contractor maintenance facilities.
At Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) below ____ kts, the HUD airspeed digital data will indicate 0.
Initiate the break turn between which location and how many feet of the runway?
What action may clear or recover a compressor stall at any altitude?
What is the weather requirement for a formation VMC Drag?
What action should you take immediately if you observe a wing malfunction?
Why is it recommended to descend below FL250 during an air conditioner turbine failure?
Describe a latched EGT.
The BAK-15 barrier may be safely engaged up to ___ knots
NAVAID Ground Checkpoint Checks allows a max of ______o CDI error from the depicted course, DME error no greater then ____ NM or ____% of the distance to the facility, whichever is greater.
If following a TCAS resolution advisory would jeopardize safe operations, what should the pilot do?
Under what conditions is NWS auto turned off?
For the G-ex, set the flight path marker to approx. ____ to ____ to hold 4-4.5G's.
If the left engine is inoperative but windmilling, gear retraction may take up to how long?
Which statement best describes EGI phase transitions related to the airfield and FAF?
The standby altimeter tolerance values are +/- ___ ft on the ground, +/- ___ ft at 5,000 pressure alt, and +/- ___ ft at 20,000 ft pressure alt.
When using the brakes, ensure the throttles are in ______
Total stick travel required to achieve full aileron deflection is how many inches?
For both the left and right FF indicators to operate normally, the FF power supply requires which power source?
The Cabin pressure regulator maintains what schedule?
During a physiological incident, who will lead back?
For IPS of Fes flying chase position, what is the minimum altitude above ground level (AGL)?
The airframe-mounted gearbox for each engine drives which accessories?
The two simulated turning traffic pattern stall types are which two?
The maximum allowable error of each altimeter at a known elevation point is ____ Ft
Which of the following is a YSAS shutdown condition?
What is the minimum airspeed for all maneuvering?
Which statement best describes the relationship between RA guidance and IFR/VFR rules?
You may combine the climb check with the level-off check when cruise altitude is at or below which flight level?
An electrical static discharge between the pilot and the DTS when inserting the DTS may cause DTS error, resulting in NO CARTRIDGE or DTS OFF displays. What should be done?
Holding airspeeds in the T-38 are between which two KCAS?
Both generators operate at _____ Volts, providing three-phase AC power.
When the nose gear is extended to more than ¾, the rudder is limited to how many degrees from neutral?
If both aircraft are blind, what altitude separation should be maintained?
The min Mach number is present on the speed scale at Alta at or above _____ ft MSL
What criterion is typically used as the go/no-go decision for touch-and-go aborts?
For a controllability check, climb to at least _____ feet AGL (if practical).
What is the oil system capacity per engine?
Which statement best describes the GEAR caution voice message thresholds?
What is the minimum taxi interval?
In most cases, you will use the ________ climb schedule for instrument and NAV purposes
What is the lower bound of the heart of the airstart envelope RPM?
How is normal landing distance calculated?
What pressure value will cause the FLIGHT/UTILITY HYDRAULIC light to turn off if achieved?
Light buffet occurs at approximately what AoA?
Who is primarily responsible for visual lookout within the flight?
On formation sorties, once the flight is ______ or ______, select A/A TACAN On.
The FULL line on the oil dipstick equates to how many pints of oil?
Single-engine holding at or above 20,000 feet cannot be accomplished with more than how many pounds of fuel remaining?
Glide distance multipliers for altitude in thousands of feet: choose the correct pair for clean and WSSP-installed aircraft, respectively.
When icing conditions are unavoidable, place the pitot heat at PITOT HEAT and turn the ______ to full increase.
What action signals engine shut-down comm-out by the RCP pilot?
For _____, automatic data transfer is not accomplished. (Must do it manually)
Intermediate speed brake positions can be obtained by?
The statement about the EGI FOM on a 1-9 scale is true for its described position error?
Engine damage may occur if ice accumulates on engine inlet duct lips to what thickness?
In a Right Essential DC Failure, which radio communications and NAVAID will continue to operate?
From the threshold, how far is the normal power reduction to idle?
The YSAS moves the rudder a maximum of +/- ___ degrees in response to yaw acceleration.
The two simulated turning traffic pattern stall types are ____ and ____.
What is the normal landing zone distance along the runway?
Define Decision Speed (DS).
How many seconds does a warm boot take for an MDP reboot?
Accelerate to 300KCAS in MIL power using approx. _____o NH pitch until passing 10,000' MSL.
How is emergency frequency monitoring best described?
In the event of an air conditioner turbine failure, what is the first action you should take?
What effect does a no-flap configuration have on landing distance?
If a touchdown speed greater than ____ KCAS is computed, another controllability check at lower fuel weight should be considered.
Which statement best describes Light buffet?
If one flap motor fails, will you have the use of both flaps? Why or why not?
Ensure the Magnetic Compass is within ____o of a known heading and within ______o of the EHSI readout.
Applying crosswind landing procedures may increase landing distance by approximately what percent?
To ensure 6,000' spacing, the preceding T-38 should be abeam which point?
The EGI will transition to NP phase-of-flight within ___ NM of the FAF.
To preclude injury from the Canopy Breaker Tool, hold the curved edge of the blade _____. This will allow glancing blows against the canopy to deflect away from you.
Which statement about FUEL LOW threshold is true?
What is the lower bound of the optimum ejection speed range in KCAS?
If distress or ELT transmissions are detected, to whom should you report?
What is the minimum SETOS?
If a callsign is not entered, VERIFY AIRCRAFT CALL SIGN PFL will be displayed when greater than _____ ft/sec GS is reached during taxi
Vibrations accompanied by fumes and odors from the air conditioning system may indicate which fault?
Wheel braking is limited to cautious braking from _____ to _____ KCAS, with optimum braking below ______ KCAS.
For bank angles less than 30 deg, lead point is based on bank angles equal to the ____.
The normal landing gear extension cycle requires approximately how many seconds?
Prior to beginning the final turn, ensure the ____ is down and locked, approx ____%.
Crew rest is compulsory for aircrew members prior to performing any duties involving aircraft operations and is a minimum of ____ non-duty hours before the Flight Duty Period (FDP) begins. This time must include an opportunity for at least ____ hours of uninterrupted rest.
Under single-engine conditions, the flaps should be raised with the gear up at what KCAS?
The standby VVI ranges from 0 to +/- ____ fpm with a tolerance of +/- ___ ft.
Below which altitude should you not delay ejection in favor of an airstart attempt?
Rollout occurs at approximately 300-390 feet AGL and 1.0-1.3 NM from the threshold. Which option matches this rollout description?
Define Normal Acceleration Check Speed (NACS) for a T-38.
The fuel quantity imbalance indicator follows what display schedule?
Turning the POSITION light switch to OFF retracts the landing-taxi light in appx. ___ sec.
Minimum stick forces occur per G at which Mach?
When Cat D mins are used due to no Cat E mins exist, what MAP segment speed is allowed?
The landing rate of descent should not exceed how many fpm with full fuel (not in a crab)?
The YSAS rudder trim adjustment is enabled only when which condition is met?
What does the T5 exhaust gas sensing system adjust to control EGT?
The DC power system, consisting of the R and L DC busses and non-esst DC bus, is powered by two ____ amp DC TRU's or one ____ volt battery.
Which document helps organize the sequence of aircraft for taxi and takeoff?
Where is the white arrow displayed when intruder vertical velocity exceeds 500 fpm?
Which items are the minimum to check in an OPS check?
Which warning is fifth in priority on the WCA?
What is the reset value for the tactical airspeed contract at Fence Out?
The maximum glide speed with windmilling engines is which KCAS?
What is normal no-wind spacing of inside downwind for a 1500' AGL traffic pattern?
Pilots will not take off if the computed takeoff roll exceeds what percent for single-ship or interval takeoffs?
AB range (Min AB - Max AB) provides approximately what percent thrust augmentation?
During single-engine, low-fuel ops, what settings should be used to ensure the engine can be fed from both fuel systems?
Idle RPM should be within limits after the engine is warmed up and which parameter has decreased to normal operating range?
Which action is discouraged immediately after touchdown in crosswind conditions?
What is the rate of vertical speed (VVI) during a full aft stick stall?
No-Flap configuration has what effect on landing distance?
Under CDI scaling, which mapping corresponds to VOR/TACAN?
Under Refusal Speed assumptions, which statement is true when the aircraft has rotated?
Define rotation speed.
Which switch adjusts the brightness of caution and warning lights?
TOT/TTT calculations can be unreliable close to the target. Within approximately how many nautical miles of the steerpoint and within how many seconds of TOT/TTT is this unreliability observed?
Which statement accurately reflects emergency frequency monitoring during flight operations?
Which of the following is a function of the Air Data Computer?
In a nozzle stuck closed scenario, what is the primary consequence described?
The Actual Navigation Performance (ANP) reflects a what percent position accuracy expressed in nautical miles?
Begin practice traffic pattern stalls below FL ____ with power set no lower than ____ % RPM.
What is the reason for avoiding throttle bursts?
When the nose gear is extended 3/4 or less, the rudder is limited to how many degrees from neutral?
Idle RPM should be operating within limits after the engine is warmed up and the what has decreased to normal operating range?
What are the psi values for the utility and flight hydraulic systems?
What is the perch airspeed tolerance?
For some procedure legs, the database specifies a Left (L) or Right (R) turn direction. Does this info aid the Flight Director (FD) upon reaching the specified point?
What altitude threshold is used by the landing gear warning system as part of its activation criteria?
When lead directs the formation to drag, wing will follow what procedure?
What RPM range provides comfortable climb rafters at 300 knots during an instrument climb?
The landing gear alt extension handle must be pulled approximately how many inches?
The latest VMC drag point will be ____ miles from the runway.
At altitudes below 1,000' AGL, wingmen will not fly at a lower AGL than lead.
Which action is included in the wing's drag procedure regarding final approach speed?
In the G exercise, which item is listed as the first priority?
If dual engine flameout occurs, the _____ engine should be attempted first as right engine instruments will operate normally as soon as engine start button is pushed.
Heavy buffet is defined as AoA higher than DIBI up to which condition?
Who retains ultimate responsibility for the flight?
Which factors are considered when determining to land as soon as possible?
Taxi operations with less than ____ lbs in either sys can cause cavitation of the boost pump of that sys, resulting in engine flameout at low power settings.
Normal thrust is obtained at which combination of RPM and EGT?
If either fuel system has less than ____ lbs of fuel, the surface of the fuel falls below the boost pump upper inlet and boost pump output is reduced by ____%.
Turning on pitot heat or exterior lighting may cause up to ____ pound change in displayed fuel quantity?
If encountering wake turbulence or jet wash, use the g limits to evaluate potential over-G. Which g limits apply?
In BLK TCAS mode, the TCAS searches within plus/minus how many feet of ownship?
In a turn less than 90 degrees, what is the lead point fraction for a 30-degree turn?
With a dual engine failure at low altitude, the aircraft should be zoomed ( appx ____ deg NH) to exchange airspeed for alt and allow additional time to accomplish subsequent emergency procedures
Which speed is reached first in the takeoff profile?
Aircrew should not fly within how many hours after scuba diving?
Which statement best defines the start of the flight duty period (FDP)?
Alignment of the EGI from degraded alignment to full alignment takes approximately ___ minutes.
FDP ends at which event?
If one aircraft in a formation must perform a controlled ejection, the chase ship should fly line abreast of the disabled aircraft and no closer than _______ ft
For a crosswind landing, which control inputs should be made to maintain centerline and proper track down the runway?
T/F a student pilot may fly safety chase for aircraft under emergency conditions
If a full-stop landing is performed on the hot side, aircraft may clear cold when?
On student training sorties, the students are expected to obtain which of the following?
Define the normal Route position.
A common technique for the landing attitude stall is to maintain level flight to approximately how many feet per minute vertical speed?
What is the bank commanded at intercepts of 30 degrees or more?
If experiencing a radio failure as lead, put the wingman in _____ and give the appropriate AFI 11-205 vis signal
Which item is NOT listed as a Wingman task?
During aggressive intercepts (high speed, high angle, close range), the bank command sweeps to center in as little as ___ second(s).
Avoiding throttle bursts helps minimize what?
L/R FUEL PRESS lights may indicate boost pump failure if xfeed is ___, the corresponding fuel shutoff is ___, and the throttles are out of ___.
During low to moderate climb or descent rates, at what percent of the VVI reading should you begin the level-off?
Which item is included in daily training materials to address emergencies?
Pins will be removed and stowed NLT ____
Landing gear alternate extension may take approximately how long?
Wingmen will notify flight lead if the Bullseye Check is outside of _______. (25FTS Standards 3.k)
Ice accumulation on engine inlet lips reaching which thickness may cause engine damage?
In the Container position, how many LAB tactical elements are involved?
Which statement best describes RA guidance relative to standard flight rules?
In Close Trail, what defines one ship length spacing?
Which item is commonly updated daily to prepare crews for potential contingencies during sorties?
If a hydraulic failure occurs, will braking action be lost?
Under the 'Land as Soon as Possible' category, what action should be taken?
No later than dogleg to final or about 10-15 NM from touchdown, you should be slowed to what KCAS?
Each ADD line on the Oil Dipstick represents how many pints of oil consumption?
Up to ___ aircraft within the surveillance range of the TCAS can be displayed as intruders.
What are the minimum and maximum G readouts on the MFD G meter?
The Container or Offset Container position is defined by how many elements flying LAB tactical, and what is their trail separation?
Which option describes the DTC flight plan capacity?
Changes of greater than +/- 100 pounds are indicative of ___________.
Define Refusal Speed (RS).
When actual field length exactly equals CFL, MACS is described as which of the following?
The maximum allowable airspeed is what value of equivalent airspeed?
What are the T-38 groundspeed checks at the 3/2/1 boards?
The rate of climb increase per knot above SETOS is between which values?
During lost wingman outside the turn, what action is performed?
Ambient canopy temperature threshold where cockpit damage is a concern when the canopy is closed?
If 'INCREASE CLIMB, INCREASE CLIMB' is heard, the TCAS RA commands a climb between which two fpm values?
How is landing defined by the DTS system?
The digital readout for nozzle position on the EED is from ___ to ___ in ___% increments.
When the VVI is greater than 6000 fpm, at how many feet prior to level-off should you reduce the pitch attitude by one-half?
During the formation engine run-up, continue to primarily focus your attention on _____ with only short glances _____.
The electrical RUDDER TRIM knob on the YSAS control panel provides rudder trim of how many degrees in either direction, provided the DAMPER switch is in the YAW position?
A full aft stick stall is reached around _____ KCAS, _____ AoA, and VVI of ______ fpm.
Which AoA value corresponds to maximum range?
The digital IVV indicator on the MFD indicates up to how many fpm?
If a single-engine pattern is practiced from an overhead, the engines should be used until which point?
What are the indications of an airframe mounted gearbox failure?
TACAN channel/ID Morse code display may take up to how many minutes to appear?
During the before takeoff checks, which set of actions must be performed when inspecting the flight control surfaces?
Which statement best reflects the crosswind landing technique?
Minimum Safe Altitude (MSA) for each leg of the route is computed by adding what amount to the highest obstruction within how many NM of the route centerline?
What is the maximum oil depletion allowed during a standard 1.2 hour instrument ride?
What altitude is recommended for a controllability check if practical?
For crosswind landings, which control input sequence is recommended?
Before initiating the break turn, ensure traffic is ____ deg off for 3000' separation or abeam (90 deg) for 6000'.
Does the increased fuel flow due to afterburner display on the Engine Equipment Display (EED)?
If both crews are dual, minimum wingtip spacing on runway lineup is how many feet?
After ice ingestion, which action is recommended to safely recover?
Pilots should normally initiate backstick px at approx ______ kts and set the boresight cross to _____ deg NH.
For a turn less than 90 degrees, which lead point fraction corresponds to a 60-degree turn?
What is the minimum KCAS and RPM to perform an instrument aileron roll?
What spacing between aircraft is recommended under crosswind procedures?
Should one generator fail, automatic transfer of the electrical load through the interaction of both protection panels may take up to ______ seconds.
DIBI buffets are characterized by which behavior?
Is hydraulic fluid level above the upper line acceptable for flight?
Lead will initiate an ops check in the MOA when reaching Joker Fuel.
Which compound can be sprayed on the canopy to cause the glass to become brittle and easy to break?
At what altitude are practice traffic pattern stalls begun?
If an EED overtemperature occurs, brightness is reduced by what percent in Day Mode, and what is displayed in the EED message window?
Wingman will 'stack level' on a formation approach when which conditions occur, whichever occurs later?
What G-distance from the current positive G limit triggers a single-rate tone?
Boost pump fuel flow is normally sufficient up to which altitude in MSL?
In a Right Essential DC Failure, which systems will be inoperable?
Which lights are not dimmed when the WARNING BRIGHT/DIM switch is set to DIM?
What are the 3 TCAS Declutter modes?
In a no-flap pattern, what is the expected spacing?
How is relative wind calculated for canopy operations?
For maneuvers with rapid climb rates and rapid decelerations above 15,000 feet pressure altitude and below which KCAS may increase the potential of compressor stalls?
Which of the following best describes a compressor stall indication at high altitude?
During the rollout transition, what speed should the aircraft fly off the runway after liftoff?
Initiate the break turn between the approach end of the runway and the first ____ feet of the runway.
What is the holding airspeed range in KCAS?
In MIL power, approximately how many knots of airspeed is 1000 feet of altitude worth?
For MA-1 and MA-1A barriers, the minimum engagement speed is approx. ____ knots, and the maximum is _____ knots for all aircraft.
On a trail departure, the sequence of speeds and bank is:
The RALT displays altitude in which unit?
Engine shut-down comm-out is signaled by the RCP pilot in what way?
The alternate mission brief should be which of the following?
The Admin Lead is responsible for running all aspects of the profile, including navigating, radios, and making profile changes as required. Aircraft are renumbered to match new position. Who retains ultimate responsibility for the flight?
If battery voltage is below 22 VDC, how does the EED display behave when the first generator comes online?
In the event of a deviation from a flight rule and/or when given traffic priority by ATC in an emergency, the PIC will verbally report the incident to a supervisor and commander within ____ hours of the incident and shall make a detailed written record. The unit will keep a copy of the record for a minimum of _____ from the date of the incident and be prepared to provide the record to authorities if required.
For an Instrument Trail departure, T/O spacing will be no less than how many seconds?
ATC may issue speed adjustments in increments of 10 knots or 0.01 Mach. Pilots must maintain a speed within +/- ______ of the specified speed.
How do you estimate 500 and 1000 feet?
The EGI transitions to NP phase-of-flight within how many NM of the FAF?
The Nav Lead is responsible for navigating and clearing for the formation. Which option best reflects this role?
Do not taxi within ___ft of obstacle, or within ___ft without a wing walker
During a low approach, if the landing gear is retracted during a descent, a Break C notification will occur causing which message to play?
Minimum stick forces occur per G at what Mach?
In flight, the optimum speed for ejection is in the range of ____ to _____ KCAS.
If EGT exceeds greater than 650 C but no more than what value, the mission may be continued?
Under the same conditions, what is the total fuel flow per engine at Mach 1.0?
If 'DESCEND, DESCEND, DESCEND' is heard with the RA, descend ____ to ____ fpm.
Recommended thunderstorm/turbulence penetration airspeed is which KCAS?
If conditions require a MAX thrust climb, maintain 2 deg to 5 deg climb until reaching recommended climb Mach, then rotate to approx. ____ to ____ deg NH climb.
Lead point can exceed 7 NM under which conditions?
The two AC gens come online when the respective engine RPM exceeds ~ ____ %.
In BOTH mode, which frequency is the Guard frequency?
Which gear is associated with the RCP gear light that may fail to illuminate during DC failure?
If you have downside hydraulics or the landing gear pinned, can you exit the runway single-engine?
With any structural damage, do not _______. Hold the landing attitude until the loss of slab authority and then cautiously apply the wheel brakes.
In the absence of MAJCOM guidance, aircrew shall minimize non-essential cockpit conversations and other extraneous activities when ______
In ILS mode with a failed upper UHF antenna and the COMM ANTENNA switch in Auto, UHF will not be available until the switch is set to which position?
Maintain a minimum spacing of how many feet between aircraft during the G-awareness exercise?
When radio fails while you are the lead, what should be done with the wingman and what signal should be used to indicate position?
The priorities for maintaining directional control during an abort are __________.
A preceding T-38 should be ____ of the way through the final turn to ensure 3,000' spacing or _____ to ensure 6,000' spacing.
Idle decay in flight is indicated by RPM decreasing to which range and which caution light illumination?
Who normally terminates ET?
To reduce the risk of FOD during ground operations, do not place object on the ____________ during engine start or while engines are running.
Which AoA indicator configuration represents very high AoA?
What is the recommended spacing between aircraft when crosswind procedures are in effect?
If one hydraulic system reads zero pressure, hydraulic transfer may occur. In this case, flight time could be limited to how long?
During the Maneuvering phase of ET, if the defender loses sight, what will they transmit over VHF?
Due to GPS clock variations, how many satellite signals are required to determine a 3D position?
In normal Route position, what is the specified lateral spacing in ship widths?
Which sensors on the EED require AC power?
If 'CLIMB, CLIMB, CLIMB' is heard with the RA, the TCAS is commanding a climb of ___ to ___ fpm.
During compressor stall recovery, which action sequence is recommended?
The heart of the airstart envelope is ___ to _____ % RPM.
Battery life is approx. ____ minutes.
In the case of a Nozzle stuck closed, EGT can increase above acceptable limits during landing rollout or taxi. If this occurs, _________.
Which mechanism connects the two flap actuators?
Using the A/A TACAN, what DME corresponds to 6,000 feet?
Normally, the rollout point is approximately _____ feet AGL, and _____ NM from the threshold.
Which AoA indication corresponds to optimum speed?
Declutter mode 2 displays only which intruders?
Nosewheel liftoff will occur at approx _____ KCAS, and the aircraft should fly off the runway at approx. _____ KCAS, depending on gross weight.
In Extended Trail, what is the Offender's EGT setting?
Which is an assumption used for Refusal Speed (RS)?
If a No Joy is transmitted and the offender is visual, which of the following responses is listed?
Pilots should normally initiate backstick input at approximately how many knots and set boresight cross to how many degrees NH?
Which lead is responsible for coordinating tactical, navigation, and radio tasks?
If the abort was made as a result of an engine fire, place the throttle of the affected engine to OFF once ______.
During low-level navigation, what do pilots annotate on maps to ensure positive positional awareness?
Which stall type has slower onset and recovery?
In AUTO mode on the COMM antenna switch, which antenna is used for communication until a glideslope signal is detected?
Upon MDP startup, the runway length criteria defaults to how many feet for the Nearest airport Database?
The 'Q' hot key toggles between which pressure settings?
Gearbox shift occurs at what percentage range?
Are the FCP and RCP standby altimeters connected?
Which control is listed first as a priority for maintaining directional control during an abort?
Which statement best describes the 500-1500 feet range associated with the Fighting Wing position?
During single-engine flight, which control must be in the closed position to achieve the published performance?
Which statement defines takeoff speed?
A PIC may only deviate from any flight rule or ATC clearance ____________
Which color indicates a fuel quantity imbalance greater than 200 lb?
Do not take off with a runway condition reading of less than how many?
Formation penetrations are restricted to 2 aircraft when the wx at the base of intended landing is less than:
Break X altitude reference used for recovery is 90 ft. The required pull-up is 4G within 2 seconds?
What is the visual signal to direct the flight to VHF 15?
If the engines are operated in which state, the actual fuel consumption will be significantly greater than the calculation in Emergency Divert Mode?
Maximum oil consumption during operation and overboard venting should not exceed how many ounces per hour?
At 5 miles from the runway, lead will follow what procedure for VMC drag?
What are the priorities for the G exercise?
Normally, a power setting less than ______% RPM should be enough to taxi.
Formation takeoffs are prohibited when which runway condition exists?
The leveling off should begin at what percent of VVI?
What is the lower end of the descent rate range commanded by 'DESCEND, DESCEND, DESCEND'?
When deciding to land under 'Land as Soon as Possible', which factor is explicitly listed as a consideration?
Which component correctly positions the compressor inlet guide vanes and air bleed valves?
The charts for floor transition, floor slave, and Cuban 8 transition are located in which dash?
What purpose does the Flap-horizontal tail (flap-slab) interconnect system provide?
When executing a go-around, can runway contact be made if condition do not permit an aerial go-around?
The requirement to monitor an emergency frequency is contingent on mission and operational conditions.
What is the Nav Lead responsible for?
During a single-engine go-around, what speed should be reached before initiating further climb or maneuvers?
Which cockpit indicators may warn of an impending stall?
One scenario that would drive the Attitude (ATT) mode to be initiated is when EGI systems sense velocity along its axes before the coarse alignment is complete (taxiing).
Which action is part of the immediate stall/sink recovery actions?
The RALT indicates altitude from 0 ft to approximately how many feet AGL, with an accuracy of +/- 2% within ±45 degrees of straight and level?
If engaging an MA-1 or MA-1A type barrier, expect nose or main tire failure above _____ knots if aborting while heavy weight.
Unless briefed otherwise, wingman will rejoin to __________.
At 5,000 feet, which visual references will you see for the wing?
With 60% flaps, the landing roll is approximately how many feet longer?
If a midair collision occurs between formation members, under no circumstances will they act as _______ for one another.
Maintain at least ___ KCAS above minimum controllable a/s during descent and landing approaches.
Which phrase is used to direct the tower to raise the departure end barrier?
What is normal no-wind spacing of inside downwind for a 1500' AGL traffic pattern?
For Cat D mins, which MAP segment speed is allowed?
Keep the stick full aft until which KIAS to maximize aerodynamic deceleration?
The airspeed carat is displayed when the commanded a/s is btw ____ and ____.
Which HUD symbol indicates that Break X is unavailable?
The cruise altitude threshold for combining climb and level-off checks is
Flameouts have occurred as low as which altitude in MSL?
Before initiating the break turn, ensure traffic is how many degrees off for 3000' separation or abeam for 6000'?
The FLIGHT/UTILITY HYDRAULIC light will go out if:
Ground/Taxi fuel consumption is approximately how many pounds per minute?
When A/A Tacan is selected, what information is removed from the HUD and MFD?
In a turn less than 90 degrees, what is the lead point fraction for a 45-degree turn?
The instrument panel map lights are turned on when swung out from the stowed position greater than ____ deg.
At intercept angles equal to or greater than 25 deg, a nominal bank of ___ deg is commanded.
Which statement about EGT after 650 C is correct?
Crosswind component, including gusts, exceeding how many knots prohibits formation takeoff?
Holding speeds are between 250 and 265 KCAS. Which statement is true?
The exhaust gas sensing system (T5) varies the nozzle to keep EGT between what values at MIL and MAX?
During the final turn, the preceding T-38 should be what fraction of the way through to maintain 3,000' spacing?
The EED is powered by what type of power?
During wing's drag, what gear and flaps action is used?
Define optimum braking.
The digital readout for nozzle position on the EED is from 0 to 99 in what increments?
Use Aerodynamic Braking to the Maximum Extent Possible During Any Abort Over ___kts
On the MFD, how can you obtain the aircraft tail number?
Which statement aligns with the proper handling of distress or ELT transmissions?
Which speed is the minimum speed at which an instantaneous engine failure can occur and still allow acceleration to SETOS and takeoff?
For each knot above SETOS, the rate of climb increases by how many feet per minute?
What is the upper bound of the optimum ejection speed range in KCAS?
In a Minimum Roll Landing, which nose-high attitude is recommended?
What effect does a No-Flap configuration have on landing distance?
After back in position, which aircraft is automatically cleared to check number 2 in a 3- or 4-ship BD Check?
To prevent fuel starvation and engine flameout, you should not perform MAX thrust dives with less than how many pounds in either system?
When UHF interference is encountered, what is the recommended first corrective action?
For internal takeoffs, when should the wing delay coming out of afterburner?
Begin practice traffic pattern stalls below which flight level with what minimum RPM?
If only lead is blind, lead will call '________' on the interflight frequency.
Which statement describes the association of Joker, Bingo, and a Flight Lead acknowledgement?
Turning on pitot heat or exterior lighting may cause up to how many pounds change in displayed fuel quantity?
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